- Common Material shared between the gospel accounts
- Uniquely Matthew
- Uniquely Mark
- Uniquely Luke
- Uniquely John
But even as Jesus said this, a crowd approached, led by Judas, one of the twelve disciples. Judas walked over to Jesus to greet Him with a kiss. (Luke 22:47)
῎Ετι δὲ αὐτοῦ λαλοῦντος ἰδοὺ ὄχλος καὶ ὁ λεγόμενος ᾿Ιούδας εἷς τῶν δώδεκα προήρχετο αὐτῶν καὶ ἤγγισε τῷ ᾿Ιησοῦ φιλῆσαι αὐτόν.
While then him speaking, behold {a crowd} and {the one} called Judas one {of the} twelve {came before} them and approached {to the} Jesus {to kiss} him.
48 But Jesus said, “Judas, would you betray the Son of Man with a kiss?” (Luke 22:48)
᾿Ιησοῦς δὲ εἶπεν αὐτῷ· ᾿Ιούδα, φιλήματι τὸν Υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου παραδίδως;
Jesus but {he said} {to him} Judas {with a kiss} the Son {of the} Man {betray you}
Two poignant verses. Remember, Luke’s theme is betrayal.
Luke uses an interesting construction which is different from Matthew and Mark. Luke uses the verbal form to begin with [φιλῆσαι] – an aorist verb expressing a brief moment of the action of showing love – I.e. to kiss. Judas draws near (aorist) and he kisses (aorist). Then Luke switches to a noun for the second use of “kiss” [φιλήματι]. The use of the verbal form for all three synoptic writers carries the idea of the kiss but expresses it as a verb. To show love. Judas approaches Jesus to show love, literally [phileo]. The idea is to approach close, intimately to love the one you approach. In other words to kiss. But as we gather from the context, Judas’ actions are far from loving. Luke’s second use of the form of phileo is in the form of the noun – with a kiss [φιλήματι] from [φιλήμα – a kiss].
φιλήματι τὸν Υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου παραδίδως
{With a kiss} the Son of man betraying?
With a kiss the Son of man betray/hand over. Notice the element “with a kiss” is put at the front of the sentence in order emphasise it.
You would approach me to love me Judas, but betray me with a kiss?
Both Matthew and Mark use a different construction. Both are verbal forms. The first comes from [phileo], the second comes from a compound verb using phileo. [kataphileo] the sense of which is to love earnestly. It seems the kiss from Judas was a passionate or earnest one. Yet how inappropriate.
ὁ δὲ παραδιδοὺς αὐτὸν ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς σημεῖον λέγων· ὅν ἂν φιλήσω, αὐτός ἐστι· κρατήσατε αὐτόν.
καὶ εὐθέως προσελθὼν τῷ ᾿Ιησοῦ εἶπε· χαῖρε, ῥαββί, καὶ κατεφίλησεν αὐτόν. (Matt 26:48-49).
One would think Judas could have come up with a more appropriate way to give a sign to the temple guard that the one whom he kissed was Jesus, the one they were looking for. But no, he chose to use the kiss. The universal sign of affection. He approached closely and gave Jesus a kiss. It ought to have been a sign of love and affection but in this case it wasn’t. It was sign of betrayal. Matthew and Mark’s use of [κατεφίλησεν] has a shock factor to it. The kiss was seemingly a passionate one. It was earnest. Either it went on for a long time or it was expressly passionate. What was Judas meaning with the way he kissed Jesus? Odd to say the least.
Luke’s use of the verb and then the noun is equally as shocking. The two contrast. Judas approaches to offer the usual form of loving greeting. A kiss on both cheeks. Judas draws close and “expresses his affection” for Jesus but it is not affection at all. Jesus tells it is like it is. With a KISS you BETRAY the Son of Man. Both the kiss and the betrayal are EMPHATIC. You use a KISS to BETRAY the Son Of Man! Amazing.
This kiss was a normal social indication of greeting and affection so prominently used in greetings everywhere. But underlying it expresses affection. It is the normal, usual form of greeting between friends. Yet used here it is far from that. Hence Jesus uses the word kiss in the way He does, drawing attention to the nature of Judas use of the normal affectionate greeting. Yet in this case far from affectionate.
I find the whole scene curious. Why did Judas even need to give a sign of betrayal in the first place. Jesus has been teaching every day in the Temple Courts during the week before this. Do you think there is a single Temple Guard who hasn’t seen Him? Do you think they didn’t know who it was they were seeking? So why the need for the “sign” in the first place? I wonder if it has to do with the sign they have been asking for from Jesus all along. But of course they meant it very differently when they first asked for the sign. It is all very curious. Not only that there are some scholars who question whether Judas actually kissed Jesus or not. They feel that Jesus response interrupted Judas and cut short his action. I.e Judas went to kiss Him but Jesus response cut him short. Luke does say that he actually kissed him by using the verbal form. I feel it is right to assume that Judas carried through on his intention and afterward Jesus said “With a kiss you betray the Son of Man.”
It is like Jesus was emphasizing the hypocritical way in which Judas used a kiss to send a sign to the Temple Guard that this is the One they should arrest. The question expresses a shock factor. Judas, you use a kiss to betray the Son of Man. The term is a Messianic term. The one man who has lived as a man should under the eyes of God but also points specifically to the MESSIAH. You would BETRAY the MESSIAH with a KISS. Shock horror. Don’t forget also the element from the last Gem related to Judas being one of the Twelve. You Judas, ONE OF MY DISCIPLES, would BETRAY the MESSIAH with a KISS. it is a shocking moment. The disciples have all confessed Him to be Messiah, Son of God, the Saviour of the World. This one, one of His own disciples would dare to betray. My goodness the moment fair takes my breath away. An enormously low moment.
Judas how low can you go?
A sobering thought for all of us: that one His own could stoop so low. Pay attention lest it be you.
Anon
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